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Virtual Pilot Center™
Written Test Center
Adventures            Downloads            Links VPPL Test Question Bank 1 - Airspace

    Below are some of the possible questions that you may be asked on the Virtual Private Pilot Written Exam Airspace Section. Of course not all of these questions will be on your particular exam, but you may be asked any of these questions. Use this quiz to study for your exam.

    Some questions on this quiz require charts. These charts can be downloaded from the link below. (Most of these charts exceed 4 megabytes in size.)

    Please enter your Full Name:

    1: The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is:
    8 nautical miles.
    6 nautical miles.
    4 nautical miles.

    2: Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from:
    1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
    700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
    the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

    3: Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least:
    2,500 feet and 3 miles.
    1,000 feet and 1 mile.
    1,000 feet and 3 miles.

    4: Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
    200 knots.
    250 knots.
    288 knots.

    5: When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is:
    200 knots.
    250 knots.
    230 knots.

    6: When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is:
    250 knots.
    200 knots.
    180 knots.

    7: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
    An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
    An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
    An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

    8: A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
    Class D.
    Class C.
    Class B.

    9: Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only:
    when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
    when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
    when the associated control tower is in operation.

    10: Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs:
    at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
    at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
    at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

    11: Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall:
    maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
    maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
    stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

    12: Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?
    Remain below the airplane traffic pattern altitude.
    Fly right-hand traffic.
    Avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic.

    13: Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
    Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
    Make all turns to the left.
    Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

    14: Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
    Class G.
    Class E.
    Class C.

    15: What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
    Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
    Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
    Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.

    16: What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
    Recreational Pilot Certificate.
    Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
    Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

    17: An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in:
    Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
    Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
    Class D airspace.

    18: In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
    Class A.
    Class C.
    Class B.

    19: During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is:
    2,000 feet.
    1,000 feet.
    1,500 feet.

    20: What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
    3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
    1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
    1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.

    21: What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
    3 miles.
    1 mile.
    4 miles.

    22: The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is:
    remain clear of clouds.
    500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
    500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

    23: During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is:
    1 mile.
    5 miles.
    3 miles.

    24: Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is:
    5 miles.
    1 mile.
    3 miles.

    25: During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is:
    1,500 feet.
    500 feet.
    1,000 feet.

    26: The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is:
    1 mile.
    3 miles.
    5 miles.

    27: No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the:
    ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
    ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
    flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

    28: A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is:
    at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
    less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
    at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

    29: What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
    The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
    The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
    The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.

    30: Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?
    Even thousandths plus 500 feet.
    Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
    Even thousandths.

    31: An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
    Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
    Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).
    Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).

    32: The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is:
    5 nautical miles.
    20 nautical miles.
    15 nautical miles.

    33: The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally:
    1,200 feet AGL.
    3,000 feet AGL.
    4,000 feet AGL.

    34: All operations within Class C airspace must be in:
    compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
    an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.
    accordance with instrument flight rules.

    35: Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
    The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
    The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
    The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

    36: Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
    When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
    With the controlling agency's authorization.
    Regulations do not allow this.

    37: What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
    Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
    Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
    Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.

    38: The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on:
    5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
    the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
    the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

    39: No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when:
    flight visibility is less than 5 miles.
    over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
    less than 2,500 feet AGL.

    40: In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
    Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL.
    Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
    Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL.

    41: What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
    2,000 feet AGL.
    1,000 feet AGL.
    1,500 feet AGL.

    42: No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than:
    3 miles.
    5 miles.
    7 miles.

    43: Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than:
    3,000 feet AGL.
    1,000 feet AGL.
    2,000 feet AGL.

    44: (Refer to figure 26, area 3.) If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
    122.95 MHz.
    126.35 MHz.
    120.3 MHz.

    45: (Refer to figure 26, area 7.) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to:
    2,500 feet MSL.
    2,900 feet MSL.
    700 feet AGL.

    46: (Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is:
    Class B airspace to 10,000 feet MSL.
    Class C airspace to 5,000 feet MSL.
    Class D airspace to 3,200 feet MSL.

    47: (Refer to figure 26.) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?
    Addison and Redbird.
    Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field.
    Fort Worth Meacham and Fort Worth Spinks.

    48: (Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is:
    126.0 MHz.
    122.95 MHz.
    133.4 MHz.

    49: (Refer to figure 26, area 8.) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?
    3,449 feet MSL.
    2,555 feet MSL.
    3,349 feet MSL.

    50: (Refer to figure 26, area 5.) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a:
    VORTAC.
    VOR/DME.
    VOR.

    51: (Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is:
    3,000 feet MSL.
    3,100 feet MSL.
    at the surface.
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